Oh, your post reminded me, GaT. When I previously read all the rumors and scuttlebutt here on this website, I was wondering if she sold him the home but loaned him a portion of the purchase price so he'd qualify for financing. She did have trouble selling it and that's one way for sellers/flippers to at least get most of their cash out of a property.
So, in that case, she'd be foreclosing him out. If there was a first loan, i.e. bank financing, she'd take the property subject to that loan. It could be a foreclosure instead of a partition action. Again, she'd need that in writing. And, did the bank (first loan) know about the guy's cash deficiency?? Oh, the plot thickens, hahahaha ...
Of course, I have absolutely no idea, whatsoever. I'm merely speculating and gossiping.
Edited b/c yes, scuttlebutt has 4 t's, lol.
Edited by diydude, Feb 25, 2014 @ 7:35 PM.